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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 05:09

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Does having the wrong address on my car insurance invalidate my policy?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do wokes use words like "homophobes" when they don't know what that means? Do they realize that no one is afraid of them?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are so many young teenage boys misogynistic? Where do they get these attitudes from?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?